提问
更新于
2017年11月1日
- 韩语
-
英语 (美国)
关于英语 (美国) 的问题
I havn't got satisfactory answers yet, so I will post my question once again.
Do the following sentences have the same meaning ?
1. I have injured my leg
2. I have got my leg injured.
3. Can you fix it?
4. Can you get it fixed?
I havn't got satisfactory answers yet, so I will post my question once again.
Do the following sentences have the same meaning ?
1. I have injured my leg
2. I have got my leg injured.
3. Can you fix it?
4. Can you get it fixed?
Do the following sentences have the same meaning ?
1. I have injured my leg
2. I have got my leg injured.
3. Can you fix it?
4. Can you get it fixed?
回答
2017年11月1日
最有帮助的回答
- 英语 (美国)
1 & 2 mean the same but 2 could be improved, maybe "My leg got injured".
3 and 4 differ in that 3 asks the person being spoken to if they themselves can fix it while 4 seems to be indeterminate as to who will fix it, perhaps it will be sent out for repairs.
这个答案有帮助吗?
- 匈牙利语
No,they don't.
the 2nd sentence sounds unnatural,it implies that you asked someone to injure your leg,which sounds strange.
The difference between 'can you fix it?' and 'can you get it fixed?',is that 'can you fix it' means that you're asking the person if they personally can fix it,while 'can you get it fixed' means you're asking them if they can ask someone else to fix something.
这个答案有帮助吗?
- 英语 (美国)
1 & 2 mean the same but 2 could be improved, maybe "My leg got injured".
3 and 4 differ in that 3 asks the person being spoken to if they themselves can fix it while 4 seems to be indeterminate as to who will fix it, perhaps it will be sent out for repairs.
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- 韩语
- 英语 (美国)
It makes sense but is unnatural.
“I injured my leg at work”would sound better. Got doesn’t really need to be there. To use got in it I would swap out injured for hurt, As injured already implies the action
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- 匈牙利语
@kook6959kook Ah,with that context it makes sense,however I still think 'I've injured my leg at work' is more common to use.
I got confused since there's a similar phrase structure that has a different meaning.My mistake ^^
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- 英语 (美国)
Two is not correct.
I would say:
“I injured my leg”
(You don’t need “have” in there at all)
And
“Can you fix it?”
(To someone you want to fix it)
“Can you get it fixed?”
(To someone that has the broken thing)
Highly-rated answerer
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- 韩语
@kariboberry
As I understand, you mean grammar is important, but what's more important is to understand the situation where it is being used. Right ?
As I understand, you mean grammar is important, but what's more important is to understand the situation where it is being used. Right ?
- 韩语
- 英语 (美国)
Hurt is the pain you are feeling or we also use hurt to mean an injury or illness. Anything that causes pain.
“I hurt my leg”
Injure is when something has happened to you to cause damage to your body. (An accident)
Damage can be from an injury or just not taking care of your body.
Highly-rated answerer
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- 韩语
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- 英语 (美国)
@kook6959kook I don’t know if a specific book or website. Sorry 😕
But when I’m not sure about an answer on here, I google it and usually something helpful comes up.
Like I googled
“have vs have got” and it explains when you use one rather than the other. It’s not perfect, but it’s helped me.
Highly-rated answerer
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- 韩语
- 韩语
I'd like your comments on my English I have shown to you so far.
- 英语 (美国)
It’s actually very good. Just a couple small things, like when you said “it would be not so easy as it sounds to find someone...”
It would be...
“It’s not as easy as it sounds to find someone”
But, really, you have a very good handle on the language. (Better than some native speakers. Haha)
Highly-rated answerer
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- 韩语
@kariboberry
Hello..
It has been a while.
1. I imagine lots of ships sailing under the moonlight.
= I imagine that lits of ships are sailing under the moonlight.
2. I can't picture ny husband with another
woman at that hotel.
I can't picture that my hasband is with another woman at that hitel.
As shown above, 1 sentence is changed into the sentence which is followed by that clause and conveys almost same meaning.
but in the case of picture, the 2 sentence can not be changed into the sentence with that clause.
I want to know why this happens. I expect a logical explanation from you.
I will be lookung forward to your quick reply.
Hello..
It has been a while.
1. I imagine lots of ships sailing under the moonlight.
= I imagine that lits of ships are sailing under the moonlight.
2. I can't picture ny husband with another
woman at that hotel.
I can't picture that my hasband is with another woman at that hitel.
As shown above, 1 sentence is changed into the sentence which is followed by that clause and conveys almost same meaning.
but in the case of picture, the 2 sentence can not be changed into the sentence with that clause.
I want to know why this happens. I expect a logical explanation from you.
I will be lookung forward to your quick reply.
- 英语 (美国)
In the first set, “imagine” actually has two meanings that make those sentences work.
#1 “imagine” means “picture in your mind” (using your imagination)
You’re saying “I can picture a lot of ships sailing under the moonlight.”
#2 “imagine” means “suppose or assume”
You are saying
“I suppose that a lot of ships are sailing under the moonlight.”
In the second set, “picture” does not have two meanings so it won’t adapt to the different sentence structure.
The first one is correct, but in the second one, you would have to say “I can’t imagine that my husband is with another woman at that hotel.”
Highly-rated answerer
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- 韩语
Thanks for you fantastic answer.
To sum it up, tgat would be as following.
1. I can imagine lots of ships sailing ~~~~.
= I can picture lots of ships sailing ~~~~~.
2.I can (imagine)that lots of ships (are sailing)~~~.
=I can (suppose) that lots of ships (are sailing )~~~.
But If I say that "I can picture that lots of ships are sailing ~~,
that's gramnatically incorrect.
Am I correct ?
Here's one more question.
In this sentence " I imagine lots of ships sailing under ~~~., sailing is the gerund or the present particle ?
Thanks in advance.
To sum it up, tgat would be as following.
1. I can imagine lots of ships sailing ~~~~.
= I can picture lots of ships sailing ~~~~~.
2.I can (imagine)that lots of ships (are sailing)~~~.
=I can (suppose) that lots of ships (are sailing )~~~.
But If I say that "I can picture that lots of ships are sailing ~~,
that's gramnatically incorrect.
Am I correct ?
Here's one more question.
In this sentence " I imagine lots of ships sailing under ~~~., sailing is the gerund or the present particle ?
Thanks in advance.
- 英语 (美国)
Yes. You got it!
Sailing would be the present participle.
“Sail” is already a verb by itself, so adding “ing” makes it a participle.
A gerund would have to be a noun made into a verb.
Highly-rated answerer
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- 韩语
@kariboberry
I agree to your opinion.
But some people argue that the sailing acts as a gerund and lots of ships as a sense subject , like when I can't imagine you(or your) [saying] those bad words.
What would you think?
I agree to your opinion.
But some people argue that the sailing acts as a gerund and lots of ships as a sense subject , like when I can't imagine you(or your) [saying] those bad words.
What would you think?
- 英语 (美国)
If we lengthened the sentence, it means:
“I imagine a lot of ships that are sailing under~~~.”
Since we are talking about the [ships that are sailing], I still think it is a present participle.
A gerund might be:
“I imagine a lot of sailing ships under~~~. “Sailing ships” could be the noun with “sailing” as the gerund.
Idk. That’s the best I’ve got! Haha
Highly-rated answerer
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